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US Constitution query



 
Ok, WITHOUT sparking off an arguement....

A while back - mid-political barney- a list member
made a comment that the part of the constitution that
specifically said 'Blah blah organised militia blah
blah' had never actually been legally interpreted. Do
I understand that right? Can you specifically clarrify
that for me (off-list if required) if possible. I'd
like a little legal background on any specific court
cases that have tried to overthrow that part of the
constitution and if I understand the comment
correctly, there haven't been any?

Thanks muchly in advancely;

Mike

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